am i right thinking this way?

budazz

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Oct 31, 2008
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ok trying to figure this out on my own.....
what ive learned so far a cpu/ram ratio of 1:1 is ideal
ddr2 is x2 or divided by 2 which ever u preferre ex.1066/2=533 mhz


so my question that i cant seem to find any where....
unless i can set my cpu FSB to 533
the only way i can get the 1:1 ratio with ddr2-1066
would be to underclock my ram?


like setting FSB to be 425 then UNDERCLOCKING ram to 425mhz (425x2=850)
which would make the ram ddr2-850
and in essence enabling the "synch" feature in bios would do the same thing right?

which doing that i could tighten my ram timings correct?
 

kyeana

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Yes thats correct, however keep the ratio at 1:1. Yes it will underclock your ram but the only difference you will see between 850 and 1066 is in the synthetic benchmards. The main reason for getting 1066 ram compared to 800 ram is that it gives you more headroom to overclock your cpu without having the ram be the bottleneck.
 

budazz

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and in the same scenerio i posted if i was using 800 ram it would OVERCLOCK my ram correct?
mainly talking about the synch option 1:1
 

kyeana

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yes it would overclock 800 ram. However if you get some good ddr2 800 ram (with low timings and 1.8 volts) then it should easily be able to overclock to 850, probably even to 950 or 1000 dependingly.

Regardless of ddr2 800 or ddr2 1066 the performance will be practically identical. Like i said the main reason for getting 1066 ram is just to make sure that you have more overclocking headroom and that the ram isn't going to bottleneck the OC.