blazorthon :
The point was not that the act was still a criminal act, but that when it was committed, it was a criminal act that should be punished because it was illegal. My example was simply a reversal of the USA law which, IIRC, lets you not be charged with a crime if you committed it before it was considered a crime by law (IE if you get drunk the night before a law against drinking was enacted, you're not charged for it because you didn't commit the *crime* after it was considered a crime). IDK the name of it, but I'm pretty sure of that being true and I was simply wondering if the inverse of it is also true because the inverse of it is what the Anon guy seems to want to attempt.
I can understand disagreeing with that standing, but I don't see how anyone (at least in the USA) can say that it doesn't make any sense.
All of that is true, technically: you don't
automatically get released/remunerated if a law that you broke is later changed. But if a law that you broke is later found to be
unjust, there is a very strong chance that you will be freed (if imprisoned) or that you will at least receive some sort of public apology, if not outright reparations. All of the above is at the discretion of the court and, possibly, of legislators.
(Or, you could sue the government years later for unjust treatment, which again leaves the matter in the hands of the court.)
What you're talking about is the Bill of Attainder clause of the Constitution, or more precisely, the concept of an ex post facto law. (Those two terms are related both in the document and by natural consequence, but they're not synonymous.) The government is explicitly disallowed from enforcing laws retroactively, because (among other reasons) that would allow people within government to use the law as a bludgeon against their enemies.
In the abstract, you're right: it's natural to assume that the ex post facto principle works in both directions, applied either to the government or to the individual, but the purpose of the constitution is to protect the individual and restrain the government -- so although the government cannot retroactively apply laws to citizens, the same restriction does not apply to citizens seeking redress for punishments meted out in the name of laws retrospectively found to be unjust.
To use a stupid example: if a law were passed mandating 30-year prison sentences for anyone posting on Tom's Hardware with the name, "blazorthon," and you were imprisoned, you would be released as soon as the courts declared the law unconstitutional. You'd also likely receive a profuse apology and you'd have an excellent chance of winning a great deal of money in a civil suit. You wouldn't rot in jail for the next three decades simply because of your unfortunate timing.
Incidentally, noob2222's example doesn't fit the unjust-law criterion: he got cited for speeding. The specific speed limit on the particular stretch of road was changed later, but that doesn't change the fact that he flouted the speed limit at the time. Speeding, in principle, is still just as illegal now as it was when he got pulled over. Even so, if noob2222 had the time, money, and inclination to take the matter to court, he might make a compelling case that the ticket should be wiped from his driving record.